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Exam Code: E20-329
Prüfungsname: Technology Architect Backup and Recovery Solutions Design Exam
Aktulisiert: 2013-11-30
Nummer: 206 Q&As

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NO.1 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to use the deduplication option. The requirement for a database
server in their enviroment is to perform deduplication backups for file system data and NetWorker tape
backups for database data. They want to allow a maximum of two parallel streams for file system backups
and a maximum of four steams for database backups.
How can this be accomplished?
A.
B.
C.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 0
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
D.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 4
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
Answer: C

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NO.2 Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is
not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation
will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar
clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files
consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of
space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be
expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

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NO.4 An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They
want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for
advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a
benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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NO.7 The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following
requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

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NO.8 An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their
data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator
creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

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NO.9 As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server
managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an
application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery
site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer
does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-495
Prüfungsname: Content Management xCelerated Composition Platform Application Development Exam
Aktulisiert: 2013-11-30
Nummer: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 What is part of the xCP runtime architecture?
A. Process Integrator
B. Process Reporting Services
C. Process Builder
D. TaskSpace Configuration
Answer: A

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NO.2 An application developer is creating a business process template and needs to ensure that certain
pieces of data that are included within a structured data type will be persisted in the repository after the
workflow completes.
To which location should the structured data type data be mapped?
A. process parameters
B. process variables
C. attributes of a package
D. no mapping is required
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which third-party product available from EMC is commonly deployed with TaskSpace to provide
document viewing, redaction, and redlining?
A. Workshare DeltaView
B. Informative Graphics Brava!
C. Adobe Acrobat Reader
D. Documentum Image Services
Answer: B

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NO.4 A manual activity has a Pre-Timer defined to send an email notification.
Which task condition for the activity will trigger the email notification?
A. The task is not completed within the specified time after the workflow starts.
B. The task is not completed within the specified time once the activity is created.
C. The task is not created within the specified time after the completion of the previous activity.
D. The task is not created within the specified time after the workflow starts.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which xCP component is responsible for providing page serving and managing annotations on
documents?
A. Documentum Collaboration Services
B. Documentum PDF Annotation Services
C. Document Image Services
D. TaskSpace
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where can an application developer enable tracing for Composer to monitor building or importing a
project?
A. dfc.properties
B. log4j.properties
C. Eclipse preferences
D. composer.properties
Answer: C

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NO.7 An insurance claims process invokes a child process that is used to determine whether the person
making the claim has secondary insurance. During the child process, a Boolean value,
has_other_insurance, is set by a task processor.
How should the has_other_insurance data item be defined so that the data can be shared between the
parent process and child process?
A. as a process parameter
B. as a structured data type
C. as a simple process variable
D. as an attribute of a package
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which core xCP component is responsible for aggregating business process reporting information?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. Business Activity Monitor
C. Process Engine
D. Documentum Reporting Services
Answer: B

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NO.9 Case workers access a TaskSpace Task List component in order to determine the most important
tasks to work on each day. Workers will filter their task list by two required data fields: Request_date:
DATE
Income: FLOAT
A value in both fields is required in order to sufficiently minimize the number of cases shown in the case
worker's task list.
How must request_date and income be defined to minimize the response time for the task list display?
A. as simple process variables
B. within separate structured data types
C. within the same structured data type
D. as attributes within package data
Answer: C

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NO.10 A medical supply company has a product approval workflow where the unique product ID must be
exposed to TaskSpace users in the task list template.
What is the EMC best practice for exposing the ID in the task list template?
A. Customize the query that populates the task list template.
B. Put the product ID into a structured data type.
C. Customize the task list template using the WDK XML configuration.
D. Mark the package data as reportable for BAM.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Where are exceptions from Inbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm-runtime.log
B. bps.log
C. documentum.log
D. server.log
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which optional xCP product provides document capture and indexing from a customizable web
interface?
A. Informative Graphics Brava!
B. Application Xtender
C. Kofax Capture Enterprise
D. Captiva eInput
Answer: D

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NO.13 A manual activity is designed with performer setting as All users in a group.
Which statement represents the server behavior?
A. A work item is generated for each user in the group and an inbox item is also generated for each user
in the group.
B. A work item is generated for each user in the group but no inbox item is generated.
C. A work item is generated for each user in the group, but only one inbox item is generated for the entire
group.
D. One work item is generated for the entire group and an inbox item is generated for each user in the
group.
Answer: A

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NO.14 During single-user testing, the task list of a TaskSpace application takes over 10 seconds to render.
What is the EMC recommended method for an application developer to identify the DQL queries that may
be the cause of the problems?
A. Turn on database level tracing and give the trace data to an experienced DBA.
B. Enable DFC tracing on the TaskSpace application server and convert the trace file to an Excel-friendly
format using traceD6.awk.
C. Install a proxy on the client machine and monitor the traffic with the TaskSpace application server
when clicking on the task list.
D. Set the last_sql_trace flag in the repository's server.ini on the Content Server and obtain all the queries
from the server log file.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which component is responsible for executing outbound data/messaging activity templates from the
Process Integrator?
A. Business Process Server
B. SMTP Server
C. Content Server
D. Java Method Server
Answer: D

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NO.16 Where are exceptions from Outbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm.log
B. log4j.log
C. bps.log
D. server.log
Answer: A

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NO.17 Users access documents by searching for them using a fulltext query. The query could potentially
return hundreds of thousands of documents; however users are only allowed to access those that were
generated within the user ¯ s o w n depa rt m en t, w h i ch i s a s m a ll nu m be r o f docu m en t s . A ccess i s con tr o ll ed
using an ACL that grants appropriate access by department.
Which data modeling approach will significantly improve the response time for the query without changing
the query semantics?
A. Modify the query to run at the database rather than the fulltext server.
B. Ensure that the ACL assigned to documents does not contain a large number of accessors.
C. Modify the ACL to restrict, rather than grant, access using the access restrictions feature of Trusted
Content Services.
D. Add an attribute value to documents that indicates the originating department and modify the query to
filter on this attribute.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which xCP component executes automatic runtime activities such as Queue Item Prioritization and
Outbound System Integration activities?
A. TaskSpace
B. Process Engine
C. Process Integrator
D. Content Server
Answer: B

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NO.19 An application developer needs to create a business process template that allows a user to modify
individual task instructions for new process instances without having to uninstall the process template.
How should the task instructions be stored?
A. in text documents stored in the repository
B. in a structured data type
C. in process variables
D. in process parameters
Answer: D

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NO.20 After defining a package, a developer selects the This package can be used to generate reports check
box.
Where does the application developer enable audit trail settings to publish reporting data?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. the process template
C. TaskSpace
D. the package definition
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-816
Prüfungsname: Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
Aktulisiert: 2013-11-30
Nummer: 156 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is migrating their Windows 2008 servers from HP storage to EMC V-Max storage.
Host-based performance metrics need to be used to design a configuration. EMC recommends the
diskperf -Y command to enable I/O statics in every server.
Why is enabling disk statistics collection recommended?
A. It improves performance of the servers
B. Otherwise, a reboot will be required to activate
C. Otherwise, you must start Performance Monitor
D. Because Windows 2008 leaves the default value to off
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is running SRDF/A single session mode. They want to change into SRDF/S mode after
nightly periods of high write activity have completed. The switch to synchronous mode failed.
What is a potential cause for this failure?
A. SRDF/S cycle switching feature is not enabled.
B. Mode change feature is only supported with Concurrent SRDF.
C. SDRF/A write cache is not enabled at the remote site.
D. Fifty percent or more of SRDF/A write cache is in use on the target Symmetrix.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company has a Symmetrix V-Max array in an open systems environment. They want to use
TimeFinder/Snap to create a single copy per day of a production environment containing 200 volumes of
8 GB each. Twenty-five percent of the total I/O in the application is write activity.
What is the amount of physical storage required for all VDEVs?
A. 50 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 0 GB
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
SRDF/S over Fibre Channel has been configured between two V-Max arrays that are 50 kilometers apart.
What is the expected write response time delay due to latency?
A. 0.25 ms
B. 0.5 ms
C. 1 ms
D. 2 ms
Answer: C

EMC   E20-816   E20-816

NO.5 What are the key differences between SIRT in 5772 and SIRT in Symmetrix V-Max with 5874?
A. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT > 115 microsec
B. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 64 KB or RTT threshold > 520 microsec
C. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT < 115 microsec
D. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 128 KB or if RTT < 115 microsec
Answer: A

EMC   E20-816   E20-816 echte fragen   E20-816 zertifizierungsantworten   E20-816 echte fragen

NO.6 The customer wants to replace the three DMX 2000s with a single Symmetrix V-Max using Open
Replicator hot pull for the move. What sequence of steps should be taken to get ready for the copy
sessions?
LUN Masking of DMX 2000 remote volumes to the V-Max FA ports.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via the same fabric or SAN extension.
FA ports of V-Max are zoned to FA ports of the three DMX 2000s.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via point-to-point or FC-AL.
LUN Masking of the V-Max control volumes to the DMX 2000 FA ports.
All V-Max FAs have access to the DMX 2000 volumes being migrated.
A. 4,6,1,3
B. 4,3,5,6
C. 2,3,1,6
D. 2,3,5,6
Answer: C

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NO.7 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes with a 16-hour RPO.
How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution.?
A. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Sum report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: B

EMC originale fragen   E20-816   E20-816   E20-816 prüfungsfrage

NO.8 A customer wants to migrate from DMX-3 with 5772 to DMX-4 with 5773 code. They are using
TimeFinder/Clone every night for backup processing with synchronous COFW. TimeFinder/Clone with
5773 allows them to use a new feature called asynchronous COFW.
How many back-end operations does TimeFinder/Clone make with Enginuity 5773 using Aynchronous
COFW compared with TimeFinder/Clone with Enginuity 5772?
A. Back-end operations are lower with 5773 Enginuity.
B. Back-end operations are the same in both Enginuity versions.
C. Back-end operations are higher with 5773 Enginuity.
D. Depends on disk speed and RAID protection.
Answer: B

EMC prüfung   E20-816 originale fragen   E20-816   E20-816   E20-816

NO.9 A customer is planning to implement SRDF/S into their environment. The customer wants zero data
loss if they lose their primary data center (R1). The distance is 1,000 miles, and the customer would like to
maintain an application response time of 10 ms.
Which design would you implement?
A. SRDF/AR single-hop
B. SRDF/AR multi-hop
C. SRDF/DM
D. SRDF/S with adaptive copy initially
Answer: B

EMC prüfung   E20-816 testantworten   E20-816 prüfungsunterlagen   E20-816

NO.10 An Open Replicator data migration from a HDS to Symmetrix array is being proposed. The customer
has the following requirements: Application downtime should be minimal and Open Replicator session
failure must not result in data loss
Which solution will meet the customer's requirements?
A. Cold pull with precopy
B. Cold pull with donor update
C. Hot pull with donor update
D. Hot pull with precopy
Answer: C

EMC exam fragen   E20-816 prüfungsunterlagen   E20-816

NO.11 A customer is implementing a new SRDF/S environment with DMX arrays. The primary and secondary
data centers are 20 kilometers apart.
Which consideration is needed for planning, designing, and implementing a synchronous solution?
A. Ensure that the application can tolerate the additional latency
B. Ensure that adequate cache on the arrays is allocated
C. Ensure that the RAID configuration is identical on both arrays
D. Ensure that there is twice the recommended amount of bandwidth
Answer: A

EMC originale fragen   E20-816 zertifizierung   E20-816 testantworten   E20-816   E20-816 zertifizierungsantworten

NO.12 A customer's application is stored on a DMX-4. The application runs 24x7x365. They would like to send
consistent replicas of this data simultaneously to four branch offices on a nightly basis. The branch offices
have CLARiiON arrays.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. Use TimeFinder/Mirror to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data from the BCVs to the remote offices.
B. Use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
C. Use Open Replicator hot push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
D. Use TimeFinder/Snap to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data on the VDEVs to the remote offices.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-816 prüfung   E20-816 echte fragen

NO.13 A customer has a single V-Max and you are helping to design a new SRDF solution. This customer
wants to replicate all its data with SRDF over a Gigabit Ethernet.
In order to get the maximum benefit from scaling, what is the most important consideration?
A. All GigE ports on the source should be able to see all GigE ports on the target array
B. Ports must have auto-negotiation off because we don't support Jumbo Frames
C. Speed limit value in the Symmetrix configuration file (not persistent)
D. Speed limits can be set on GigE ports from 100 to 10000 Mb (megabits)
Answer: A

EMC   E20-816   E20-816   E20-816

NO.14 The customer has a DMX-4 replicating to another DMX-4 (microcode level 5773 for both) over an
SRDF/S session between two sites 20 km apart and wants to understand the limitation (if any) of using
the Single Round Trip (SiRT) feature on RF directors. What is the applicable limitation of the setup?
A. SiRT only works for an I/O size of less than 32 KB.
B. SiRT is enabled for all block sizes.
C. SiRT would not work because the distance is greater than 12 km.
D. SiRT only works for SRDF/A.
Answer: A

EMC zertifizierungsfragen   E20-816   E20-816 echte fragen   E20-816

NO.15 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes. The snap would be kept for 8 hours. How should the Change Tracker data
collection be set up to model the solution?
A. Sum report with a reset of 4 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: D

EMC   E20-816   E20-816 zertifizierungsfragen   E20-816

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Exam Code: EVP-100
Prüfungsname: 2011 VSE Consolidate Product & Technology Test
Aktulisiert: 2013-11-30
Nummer: 133 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two (2) are key benefits of the VNX File Reduplication?
A. Reduced power costs
B. Improved application performance
C. Improved reliability of applications
D. Reduced reliance on short-term tape retention
E. Improved LAN and WAN performance
Answer: D,E

EMC zertifizierung   EVP-100 zertifizierungsfragen   EVP-100 zertifizierungsfragen   EVP-100 zertifizierungsfragen   EVP-100 zertifizierung

NO.2 What is the term used to describe the total amount of Thin LUN user capacity that is configured in the
Pool and
is presented to the attached hosts?
A. Over Subscribed Capacity
B. Host Capacity
C. Subscribed Capacity
D. User Capacity
Answer: C

EMC prüfungsfragen   EVP-100 prüfungsfrage   EVP-100 zertifizierungsfragen   EVP-100

NO.3 Which compression state is being utilized when data compression is first enabled while background
setup
operations are performed by system?
A. Compressing
B. Compressed
C. Queued
D. Initializing
Answer: D

EMC prüfungsunterlagen   EVP-100 prüfung   EVP-100 originale fragen   EVP-100

NO.4 Which two (2) VNX Arrays will the Velocity partners focus their efforts on selling?
A. VNX5700
B. VNX5300
C. VNX5500
D. VNX7500
E. VNX5100
Answer: B,E

EMC   EVP-100 dumps   EVP-100   EVP-100 originale fragen

NO.5 Which VNX Array is Block Based only?
A. VNX5100
B. VNX5500
C. VNX5300
D. VNX5700
Answer: A

EMC testantworten   EVP-100 prüfungsfrage   EVP-100 prüfungsfrage   EVP-100 prüfungsfragen   EVP-100

NO.6 Which three (3) protocols will the VNXe array work with?
A. iSCSI (file emulated)
B. Fibre Channel
C. FTP/SFTP
D. CIFS
E. iSCSI (native block)
F. NFS
Answer: A,D,F

EMC zertifizierungsfragen   EVP-100 prüfung   EVP-100 exam fragen   EVP-100 prüfung

NO.7 Which two (2) new drive types were introduced with the VNX array family?
A. Enterprise Flash Drives
B. SAS
C. Fibre Channel
D. SATA Flash Drives
E. NL SAS
Answer: B,E

EMC   EVP-100 originale fragen   EVP-100

NO.8 When comparing the different software suites for the VNXe, which one of the software suites provides
for file and block snapshots?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Application Protection Suite
C. Security and Compliance Suite
D. Local Protection Suite
Answer: D

EMC prüfungsfragen   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100 prüfungsfragen   EVP-100 zertifizierungsantworten   EVP-100 originale fragen

NO.9 Which (3) are considered software features of VNX.?
A. Unified IP based protocols
B. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
C. FibreChannel Connectivity
D. Simplified Management
E. Integrated Data Protection
F. Active/active ease of use
Answer: B,C,F

EMC zertifizierung   EVP-100 prüfung   EVP-100

NO.10 What feature of the VNX allows the array to free up space by eliminating redundant data?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. FASTVP
C. Data Compression
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: C

EMC   EVP-100 dumps   EVP-100   EVP-100 originale fragen

NO.11 Zoning with World Wide Names is often referred to as what?
A. Host Zoning
B. Hard Zoning
C. WWNN Zoning
D. Soft Zoning
Answer: D

EMC testantworten   EVP-100 prüfungsunterlagen   EVP-100 prüfung   EVP-100 echte fragen   EVP-100 antworten

NO.12 What feature of the VNX allows the array to move more active data to faster drives and less active
data to
slower drives?
A. FASTVP
B. FAST Cashe
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: A

EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100 dumps

NO.13 Which three (3) are considered software features of the VNXe?
A. integrated Data Protection
B. FibreChannel Connectivity
C. Active/active ease of use
D. Simplified Management
E. Unified IP based protocols
F. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
Answer: A,D,E

EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100 prüfungsunterlagen

NO.14 When comparing the different software suites for the VNX, which one provides for automated,
application aware replication, monitoring, notification, and reporting via Replication Manager and Data
Protection Advisor for Replication Analysis?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Security and Compliance Suite
C. Local Protection Suite
D. Application Protection Suite
Answer: D

EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.15 What feature of the VNX measures, monitors and controls application performance on the storage
system?
A. FASTVP
B. Unisphere Quality of Service Manager
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: B

EMC testantworten   EVP-100 prüfung   EVP-100 testantworten   EVP-100

NO.16 Which suite of software is the Unisphere Analyzer part of?
A. VNX Local Protection Suite
B. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
Answer: D

EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100 prüfungsunterlagen

NO.17 What feature of the VNX allows the array to identify bottlenecks and hot-spots in the VNX storage
systems?
A. Data Compression
B. Unisphere Analyzer
C. FASTVP
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: B

EMC prüfung   EVP-100 zertifizierung   EVP-100 echte fragen   EVP-100 testantworten   EVP-100

NO.18 The VNX Total Protection Pack consists of which of the software suites?
A. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
B. VNX Local Protection Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
E. VNX Application Protection Suite
Answer: B,C,E

EMC prüfungsunterlagen   EVP-100 prüfung   EVP-100   EVP-100 zertifizierungsfragen

NO.19 What feature of the VNX allows the array to avoid cache misses and improves response time by
promoting data from Hard Disk Drives to Flash Drives?
A. FASTVP
B. Data Compression
C. Fash Cashe
D. Unisphere Analyzer
Answer: C

EMC   EVP-100 prüfungsfragen   EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.20 What type of drive is best suited for environments where high IOPS is required?
A. SAS
B. Flash Drives
C. Fibre Channel
D. NL SAS
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-918
Prüfungsname: IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects
Aktulisiert: 2013-11-30
Nummer: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 The marketing line of business of an enterprise has deployed web services within a private cloud. They
wish to provide additional web services elastically and distribute them around the globe using a public
cloud provider.
The web services have a loosely coupled design and have no content dependencies on any resources in
the private cloud. They are created from a standard PaaS template, which includes an intrusion
prevention system that periodically polls a central management server for security updates. The IPS
management server is located within the private cloud. No layer 2 connectivity exists between the private
and public clouds. The consumers of these web services are distributed across the globe.
Which solution would you recommend to best support the web service elasticity and to minimize service
network latency for the consumer?
A. Implement an encrypted VPN tunnel between the private and public clouds.
B. Implement a global load balancing service as a front-end for the web services.
C. Increase bandwidth between the private cloud and the Internet.
D. Deploy a central database server to consolidate web service content.
Answer: B

EMC   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918 prüfungsfrage   E20-918 zertifizierungsantworten

NO.2 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

EMC exam fragen   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918 zertifizierung

NO.3 A hosting company has experienced a sudden increase in customer interest and wishes to implement
ITaaS. They are now hosting online shopping applications for several retail computer and electronics
companies.
Developers in the customer companies use their own internal credentials and have the ability to publish
applications and changes to their stores. Shoppers access these stores using a variety of mobile
applications and web browsers.
What should be addressed when migrating to ITaaS and implementing a service catalog for the retail and
electronic companies?
A. Integration with different authentication systems
B. Support for several different CMDB systems
C. Integration of multiple hypervisors
D. On-demand resource pool creation
Answer: A

EMC prüfungsfragen   E20-918 prüfungsfragen   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918 zertifizierung

NO.4 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918

NO.5 An organization wishes to move toward full ITaaS implementation. Their IT team is skilled, disciplined,
and exhibits strong teamwork. They have demonstrated the ability to deliver services with supporting
processes and regulations.
As their ITaaS consultant, you need to take them to the next level in the service orientation maturity model.
What is the next level?
A. Service Aligned
B. Service Aware
C. Service Capable
D. Service Neutral
Answer: A

EMC antworten   E20-918 dumps   E20-918

NO.6 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

EMC testantworten   E20-918   E20-918 originale fragen   E20-918 zertifizierung

NO.7 The IT group within a manufacturing organization is transforming their manual service offerings into
automated service offerings to be available from a service catalog. After reviewing the required KPIs for
the service, the service transition project manager asks you if the monitoring tools they currently employ
need to be replaced.
What criteria are needed to effectively monitor the required KPIs?
A. Can they measure, gather, analyze, and present the required metrics?
B. Can they control, automate, monitor and manage all elements of the service?
C. Can they provide end-to-end support of the services?
D. Can they integrate with the orchestration engine to provide automation?
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918

NO.8 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

EMC zertifizierungsantworten   E20-918   E20-918 prüfungsfrage   E20-918 prüfungsfrage

NO.9 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

EMC prüfungsfragen   E20-918 dumps   E20-918 prüfungsfragen

NO.10 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

EMC   E20-918 antworten   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918

NO.11 An enterprise decided to place some sensitive data in the public cloud and implemented security
mechanisms to protect this data.
Recently the public cloud provider's systems had a security breach. The enterprise was not concerned
because they felt their data had been completely protected. All of the services housing the data are
protected by an IPS application and no alerts were generated by the system.
How did the enterprise protect its data?
A. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. The encryption
keys were under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
B. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. Copies of the
encryption keys were secured by the public cloud provider in case they were lost.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were neither accessed nor copied.
C. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted in-transit only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
D. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918

NO.12 A financial company has made several acquisitions within the past few years. They currently have two
primary data centers that are 50 km apart. Recently, an internal assessment was conducted to explore
ways to improve ingress/egress utilization and to extend their firewall to the cloud.
Which type of firewall would best suit their needs?
A. Reverse proxy servers
B. Federated
C. Load balanced reverse proxy servers
D. Linked VPN
Answer: B

EMC antworten   E20-918   E20-918 antworten   E20-918 antworten

NO.13 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918 prüfungsfragen   E20-918 prüfungsfragen

NO.14 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

EMC exam fragen   E20-918   E20-918

NO.15 A manufacturing company hired you to help them in their journey to a hybrid cloud. You conduct an
assessment and recommend migrating several existing Tier 2 applications to a public cloud provider. You
must work within the following constraints:
-Migration can be performed only during weekends -Only limited downtime is acceptable -The
configuration of the host and applications cannot be changed -The company needs to keep the costs as
low as possible -Although there are no specific performance requirements, they are concerned about the
quality
of the user experience
Which solution best addresses these needs?
A. Layer 2 extension with VPN connection over Internet with WAN optimization
B. Layer 3 connection over Internet with QoS
C. Layer 3 connection over Internet with WAN optimization
D. Layer 2 extension with dedicated link and WAN optimization
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-555
Prüfungsname: Isilon Solutions and Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects
Aktulisiert: 2013-11-30
Nummer: 225 Q&As

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NO.1 -- Exhibit -
We have been engaged by a research hospital to help upgrade their Isilon installation.
They currently have 12 previous generation Isilon nodes with 200TB of capacity and run on a 1Gbps
network.
They currently have 6 Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers and an HPC cluster to process data.
They would like to expand Isilon to 2PB of active data and 1PB of archive data.
They use a third party data and metadata management service (IRODs) to stage data for analysis.
The Isilon cluster is mainly used for analysis work with the HPC cluster.
-- Exhibit -
The customer will add two more Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers in the next 6 months.
Once these are added, what is the total amount of data from all the sequencers they can expect to
add per month?
A. 9.6 TB
B. 4.8 TB
C. 1.2 TB
D. 14.4 TB
Answer: A

EMC   E20-555   E20-555 prüfungsfragen   E20-555 zertifizierungsantworten   E20-555 zertifizierungsfragen

NO.2 A NetApp customer is considering Isilon. They use their filers for UNIX home directories, and
would like to see a suggested configuration that would meet their needs.
What would you do to help size this cluster?
A. Ask for an autosupport file and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
B. Ask them to install InsightIQ and collect data from the filer, then import to SQL for analysis
C. Ask for the output from nfsstat and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
D. Use tcpdump and upload the output file to MiTrends to generate a protocol analysis
Answer: C

EMC prüfungsunterlagen   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555 zertifizierung

NO.3 An Isilon customer expressed an interest in more effectively managing their storage.
Specifically, they would like to plan for future growth.
Which tool would allow the customer to forecast capacity requirements?
A. InsightIQ
B. Isilon SNMP MIB
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartPools
Answer: C

EMC prüfungsunterlagen   E20-555   E20-555

NO.4 If Isilon SmartConnect is being configured in a customer environment, which records are
required for a supported implementation?
A. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a zone delegation for the SmartConnect zone
delegated to the SSIP
B. An overloaded host record with each SmartConnect zone member's IP address and an SRV record
to provide resolution services
C. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a corresponding PTR record for each SmartConnect
zone
D. A SOA record for the SmartConnect Service IP and a corresponding CNAME record for each
SmartConnect zone
Answer: A

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NO.5 An Isilon customer created a scheduled SyncIQ policy to replicate data from an
Enterprise-mode SmartLock directory. The source cluster is now unusable and the target cluster
does not automatically allow writes to the data in the replicated SmartLock directory.
What is the reason why the target cluster did not automatically allow writes of the data?
A. SyncIQ Automated failover is not supported for SmartLock directories; however, manual failover
is allowed.
B. Automated failover and manual failover are not allowed on SmartLock directories on the target
cluster.
C. A SyncIQ job was running while the source cluster became unusable, thereby removing all data
on the target directory.
D. SnapshotIQ was not licensed on the target cluster; the snapshot of the directory is not available
for use by SyncIQ.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does Isilon OneFS use to re-write data when a disk read fails?
A. Dynamic Sector Repair
B. NVRAM
C. Isilon Data Integrity
D. CRC
Answer: A

EMC zertifizierungsantworten   E20-555   E20-555 echte fragen

NO.7 Your customer uses an existing Isilon cluster consisting of five NL-Series nodes to source
broadcast media files for playback and streaming.The customer reports that the playback pauses
and stutters regularly. It has been confirmed that there are no network or playback system issues.
Which of the choices listed is the appropriate choice to address the playback issues?
A. Add three or more S-Series Nodes
B. Upgrade OneFS to the latest version
C. Enable SmartConnect Advanced
D. Enable Level 2 Caching
Answer: A

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NO.8 When an Isilon SyncIQ replication job completes, how many SnapshotIQ policies can be
created on a target cluster directory?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.9 A Media and Entertainment company is considering changing from 2K resolution to 4K
resolution. They will continue to use the DNxHD 220 codec.
Assuming everything else stays the same, how will this change affect storage?
A. Storage will be half as large
B. Storage requirements will not change
C. Storage will be twice as large
D. Storage will be four times as large
Answer: B

EMC   E20-555   E20-555 exam fragen   E20-555

NO.10 What is the maximum volume or aggregate size that can be created with an Isilon Scale-Out
NAS system?
A. 16 TB
B. 100 TB
C. 2.3 PB
D. 20 PB
Answer: D

EMC   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555 prüfungsfragen   E20-555   E20-555 zertifizierungsantworten

NO.11 -- Exhibit -
A large manufacturing company is an existing Isilon customer with a cluster consisting of four NL400
nodes with 4TB drives. The cluster is using N+2:1 protection level and the file system shows that it is
60% utilized. Home directories and file shares comprise 75% of the existing content and the
remainder is inactive deep archive. The company has 1,000 employees using Windows and Mac
clients participating in a single Active Directory (AD) forest.
During a meeting with the CIO and Director of IT you discuss the company's recent acquisition - an
engineering firm that specializes in Computer Aided Design (CAD). The engineering firm has 400
UNIX workstations that produce technical drawings which are currently stored on another vendor's
SAN solution. The all UNIX environment uses NIS for authentication and name resolution. They do
not currently use DNS or LDAP . The engineering company has an old storage system that has been
experiencing problems and the CIO would like you to migrate the data onto the Isilon cluster. The
CIO would like to eliminate all tape and recover the data onto disk.
The CIO is concerned about security of the company's intellectual property, especially with the rapid
adoption of mobile devices and external cloud content sharing services such as DropBox, Egnyte,
and SugarSync. They would like to implement an alternative that provides external file sharing and
mobile device synchronization while maintaining security control over the company's data.
The Director of IT reports that users are storing non-work related content on the Isilon cluster. They
would like to limit the amount of capacity that each user can consume in their home directory and
want to ensure you provide the capability to easily visualize which users are over their
allotment.The company's Windows users currently leverage Windows Shadow Copy to recover files
that have been accidentally deleted. The IT department wants to ensure that Mac and incoming
UNIX clients have the same functionality.
The Director of IT also mentions that users are reporting slow response times when browsing their
home directories and shared folders. They are concerned that Isilon cannot scale to support their
combined requirements.
-- Exhibit -
Based on the meeting with the customer, which Isilon cluster configuration would you recommend?
A. 4 x X400 nodes with 2 x SSD and 34 x 4TB drives 1 x Additional NL400
B. 6 x X400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives 1 x Backup Accelerator
C. 4 x NL400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives
D. 9 x S200 nodes with 2 x SSD and 22 x 900GB SAS
Answer: A

EMC originale fragen   E20-555   E20-555 dumps   E20-555

NO.12 At a minimum, how many connected and available nodes are required to maintain quorum in
a 25-node cluster?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 17
Answer: C

EMC zertifizierungsfragen   E20-555 testantworten   E20-555   E20-555 testantworten

NO.13 An Isilon customer has an environment supporting a wide range of different workloads. They
want to assign clients to performance tiers based on the resources needed.
What can the customer use to meet this requirement?
A. SmartConnect Zones
B. Load Balancing
C. Client Connection Zone
D. SmartPools Advanced
Answer: A

EMC originale fragen   E20-555 antworten   E20-555 zertifizierung   E20-555 zertifizierung

NO.14 A customer is making a decision between Isilon and a competitor's offering. They currently
have 100TB of usable capacity and are forecasting 100% growth per year for the next three years,
which will require them to lease additional space in their co-located data center. The CFO finds ROI
and TCO to be important decision criteria.
Which statement best emphasizes the value of Isilon for this customer?
A. Isilon's OneFS data protection policies offer substantially lower overhead than competitive RAID
based NAS solutions.
B. An IDC study found that Isilon requires 95% less down time hours per year compared to other
competitors.
C. The competition cannot offer a scale-out NAS so as capacity is added to the array, performance
may degrade.
D. Isilon's OneFS allows administrators to manage much larger amounts of capacity than
competitive offerings.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555

NO.15 A customer created one month of snapshots; one snapshot every 8 hours for 30 days on an
Isilon cluster using SnapshotIQ. They are now deleting the snapshots randomly and experiencing
overhead to the cluster.
How can the snapshots be removed while avoiding the overhead caused by this process?
A. Delete the snapshots in order
B. Use SmartPools to move the snapshot data to a different tier
C. Snapshots cannot be deleted
D. Remove the directory
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 212-77
Prüfungsname: Linux Security
Aktulisiert: 2013-11-30
Nummer: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Assume that you have just logged on as a regular user. Which of the following
commands allows you to edit the file with user passwords associated with the
Shadow Password Suite?
A. vi /etc/shadow
B. sudo -c "vi /etc/shadow"
C. su -c "vi /etc/shadow"
D. visu vi /etc/passwd
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are told by a co-worker that information pertaining to the syslog command can
be found in man page 3. How would you view this information?
A. man syslog 3
B. man 3 syslog
C. man syslog -3
D. man -3 syslog
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   212-77 prüfungsfrage   212-77 prüfungsfragen   212-77 antworten

NO.3 How should you engage users in helping to secure your computer's passwords?
A. Educate them about the importance of security, the means of choosing good
passwords, and the ways crackers can obtain passwords.
B. Instruct your users to e-mail copies of their passwords to themselves on other systems
so that they're readily available in case of an emergency.
C. Enforce password change rules but don't tell users how crackers obtain passwords
since you could be educating a future cracker.
D. Give some of your users copies of the encrypted database file as backup in case a
cracker breaks in and corrupts the original.
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   212-77 originale fragen   212-77 echte fragen   212-77

NO.4 Which of the following is true of Linux passwords?
A. They are changed with the password utility.
B. They must be changed once a month.
C. They may consist only of lowercase letters and numbers.
D. They may be changed by the user who owns an account or by root.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following are ways to disable dynamic routing?
A. The linuxconf Gated Daemon screen
B. The linuxconf Routed Daemon screen
C. echo "0" > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/dynamic_routing
D. Editing /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is not a Linux DHCP client?
A. dhcpcd
B. pump
C. dhcpd
D. dhclient
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following are risks of SUID and SGID programs? (Choose two)
A. Bugs in the programs may cause more damage than they would in ordinary programs.
B. The program files are large and thus may cause a disk to run out of space.
C. Because the programs require password entry, running them over an insecure network
link runs the risk of password interception.
D. Users may be able to abuse a program's features, thus doing more damage than would
otherwise be possible.
Answer: B, D

EC-COUNCIL testantworten   212-77   212-77 testantworten

NO.8 Which of the following statements applies to the IP address 192.168.0.1?
A. It is reserved.
B. It cannot be assigned to a host that accesses the Internet.
C. It is designated for multicast transmission.
D. It can be freely assigned to a host on a private network
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   212-77 testantworten   212-77   212-77   212-77 prüfung   212-77

NO.9 Which of the following measures is the most effective way to prevent attacks
through various network services?
A. Disable a service in the appropriate /etc/xinetd.d configuration file.
B. Use a firewall to drop all requests to unneeded services.
C. Block service requests with the appropriate commands in /etc/hosts.deny.
D. Uninstall unneeded network services.
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   212-77   212-77   212-77 zertifizierungsantworten   212-77

NO.10 Under the bash shell which is the most appropriate place to set environment
variables that apply to all users?
A. /etc/skel
B. rc.sysinit
C. /etc/profile
D. /etc/bashrc
E. rc.local
Answer: A

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